The Concept of Sinlessness and Sinfulness in the First Letter of John

The Concept of Sinlessness and Sinfulness in the First Letter of John

With Reference to the Paradox encountered in 1:6-10/3:6-10

So, there is indeed a paradox here in 1John. But this antinomy is, I would say, a part of Christianity itself a paradox? Is it not the encounter of the Divine with the humanity a paradox? Isn't the encounter of the infinite with the finite, the Perfect with the imperfect a paradox? Is it not the encounter of the Sinless with the sinful One wishes to draw to Himself humanity not by using magic and making them automatically sinless, but by their own consent. What John says, it seems to me, is that Christians are given the opportunity to become sinless as long as they are striving for sinlessness; for such a gift is offered to those who maintain their fellowship with God who will grant sinlessness to them at the eschaton, when evil ceases to exist. As I see it, perfection for John is the striving of the imperfect for perfection.

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